$\begingroup$

Is my proof correct?

The trichotomy of order for natural numbers states: Let $a,b$ be natural numbers. Then exactly one of the following statements is true:

I. $a < b$

II. $a = b$

III. $a > b$

Proof:

If $a < b$ then by definition $a \neq b$. If $a > b$ then $a \neq b$ by definition as well. Therefore it is not possible to have I and II be true at the same time, nor II and III be true at the same time, nor I, II, and III be true at the same time.

If $a < b$ and $a > b$ then it means we can write $a = b + m$ and $b = a + n$ for natural numbers $n,m$ where $a \neq b$. By substitution, $a = a + n + m$, which by cancellation law is $0 = n + m$. This also means $n = m = 0$, suggesting that $a = b$, a contradiction. Therefore it is not possible for I and III to be true at the same time.

Now we will show that at least one of I, II, or III is true via induction on $a$.

Base case: Let $a=0$. If $b=0$, then $a=b$, statement II, is true. If $b \neq 0$, then statement I is true, $0 < b$, since we can write $0 + m = m = b$ where $0 \neq b$.

Inductive step: Suppose either $a < b$, $a = b$, or $a > b$ is true. We need to show that $S(a) < b$, $S(a) = b$, or $S(a) > b$ is true.

If $a > b$, then $S(a) > b$ is true, since $a = b + m$ where $a \neq b$, so we also have $S(a) = S(b + m) = b + S(m)$ which satisfies the definition for $S(a) > b$ as long as $S(a) \neq b$. And $S(a) \neq b$ is true, since if it weren't, we'd have $b = b + S(m)$ or $0 = S(m)$ by additive identity and cancellation law, and $0$ is not a successor of any natural number.

If $a = b$, then $S(a) > b$ is true. This is because if $a = b$ then $S(a) = S(b) = S(b + 0) = b + S(0)$ which satisfies the definition for $S(a) > b$ as long as $S(a) \neq b$. And $S(a) \neq b$ is still true, since if it weren't, we'd have $b = b + S(0)$ or $0 = S(0)$ by additive identity and cancellation law, and $0$ is not a successor of any natural number.

If $a < b$, then either $S(a) < b$ or $S(a) = b$ is true. We can write $b = a + m$ for some $m$ where $a \neq b$ (so $m \neq 0$). Suppose $m=S(0)$. Then $b = a + S(0) = S(a + 0) = S(a)$. If $m \neq S(0)$, then $S(a) \neq b$, so it suffices to show that $b = S(a) + k$ for some $k$. If we let $S(k) = m$ (which is valid since we have $m \neq 0$), then $b = a + S(k) = S(a + k) = S(a) + k$ holds.

This closes the induction.

$\endgroup$1

Reset to default

Know someone who can answer? Share a link to this question via email, Twitter, or Facebook.

Your Answer

Sign up or log in

Sign up using Google Sign up using Facebook Sign up using Email and Password

Post as a guest

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy